It seems that some studies show that most people with high functioning autism are asexual, but I think it shall be interpreted differently.
I searched for the meaning of “asexual” in my dictionary. It is very important how we define “asexual”.
In one dictionary it is said that asexual means: “a person who lacks interest in or desire for sex.”
In a website it is written that “Asexuality refers to a lack of an inherent desire to have sex.”. (I bring it here because it seems that it is a part of common understanding.)
If we talk about people with autism and we want to mention asexuality the second definition is definitely wrong. The first definition I think could be modified to : “a person who seems that he/she lacks interest in or desire for sex.”
The inherent sexual drive and instincts of an individual with autism for sex is the same as other people. They have inherent sexual desire like any human being. But what is difference when it seems that they are with lack of interest or they don’t have desire for sex? It is because their mind system avoids arousal situations. I can’t call it suppression, but it is very the same as it. Mind system of people with autism just avoid arousal in many ways and it is to protect them for confronting with painful condition. It is inhibitions and restrictions enforced by mind system on sexual arousal. It is like a withdrawal in wars, one side withdraws, give its lands to other part to stay safe.
PS1: Something that I called as an state of withdrawal is the same as the term “regression” in Freudian psychoanalysis.
PS2: After some comments I noticed that there is a misunderstanding about my post. I’m not talking about the phenomenon of ‘Asexuality’ and ‘Asexuals’. I’ve not noticed that it is a category of people with asexual orientation. This post is about people with autism and a characteristic found in some of them in which they are not attracted / or not engaged in sexual activities. It is not about ‘asexual’ people.